A cubic foot -- cu.ft. or ft3 -- is a unit of volume. It is the space occupied by a cube whose edges are one linear foot long. If by "terms" you mean "units," then there is only one term -- the foot -- which is raised to the power of three (that is, it is cubed). Since the foot is a fundamental unit that cannot be decomposed, you can say there is only one term.
AnswerThe probability that a randomly chosen [counting] number is not divisible by 2 is (1-1/2) or 0.5. One out of two numbers is divisible by two, so 1-1/2 are not divisible by two. The probability that a randomly chosen [counting] number is not divisible by 3 is (1-1/3) = 2/3. Similarly, the probability that a randomly chosen [counting] number is not divisible by N is (1-1/N). The probability that a random number is not divisible by any of 2, 3 or 6 can be reduced to whether it is divisible by 2 or 3 (since any number divisible by 6 can definitely be divided by both and so it is irrelevant). This probability depends on the range of numbers available. For example, if the range is all whole numbers from 0 to 10 inclusive, the probability is 3/11, because only the integers 1, 5, and 7 in this range are not divisible by 2, 3, or 6. If the range is shortened, say just from 0 to 1, the probability is 1/2. Usually questions of this sort invite you to contemplate what happens as the sampling range gets bigger and bigger. For a very large range (consisting of all integers between two values), about half the numbers are divisible by two and half are not. Of those that are not, only about one third are divisible by 3; the other two-thirds are not. That leaves 2/3 * 1/2 = 1/3 of them all. As already remarked, a number not divisible by two and not divisible by three cannot be divisible by six, so we're done: the limiting probability equals 1/3. (This argument can be made rigorous by showing that the probability differs from 1/3 by an amount that is bounded by the reciprocal of the length of the range from which you are sampling. As the length grows arbitrarily large, its reciprocal goes to zero.) This is an example of the use of the inclusion-exclusion formula, which relates the probabilities of four events A, B, (AandB), and (AorB). It goes like this: P(AorB) = P(A) + P(B) - P(AandB) In this example, A is the event "divisible by 2", and B is the event "divisible by 3".
There are 16 fluid ounces to the pint (US).
There are three teaspoons (tsp.) in a tablespoon.
There are two tablespoons (tbs.) in an ounce.
There are 8 ounces (oz.) in a cup.
There are 2 cups (c.) in a pint.
There are two pints (pt.) in a quart.
There are four quarts (qt.) in a gallon (gal.).
Hence, there are 16 ounces in a pint. (A US pint, that is. A UK pint has more.)
Ounces in a Pint
Arguably, there is no unit in existence that leads to more hair-pulling confusion than the pint. There's the UK pint, the US liquid pint, and the US dry pint, further complicated by the fact there is the UK liquid ounce and the US liquid ounce, which should never be -- but frequently is -- confused with the dry ounce, which is a measure of mass and weight, not volume.
Here are some conversions for you:
1 pint [US, liquid] = 16 ounce [US, liquid]
1 pint [UK] = 20 ounce [UK, liquid]
1 pint [US, liquid] = 16.653 483 693 ounce [UK, liquid]
1 pint [UK] = 19.215 198 808 ounce [US, liquid]
1 pint [US, dry] = 18.618 355 102 ounce [US, liquid]
1 pint [US, dry] = 19.378 779 567 ounce [UK, liquid]
Note that this is for a fluid pint and fluid ounce. Dry ounces and fluid ounces are not interchangeable. Fluid ounces are a measure of volume and dry ounces are a measure of weight or mass.
Hi, This could be caused by pregnancy but its most likely caused by a hormonal imbalance or irregular periods. See your doctor.